Stack Exchange network consists of 176 Q&A communities including Stack Overflow, the largest, most trusted online community for developers to learn, share their knowledge, and build their careers. While, yes, he was a "son of destruction" this was due to his actions and his choices. The Mormon Church teaches that Joseph Smith saw God the Father and His Son. Various Old Testament origins have been suggested for "that the scripture might be fulfilled." According to some modern biblical criticism New Testament writers derived the "son of perdition" (and "man of sin") concepts from Daniel and 1 Maccabees 2:48 "And they did not surrender the horn to the sinner." What he's referring to here is clearly that Judas was of Satan and not of God. The other translations tend to reflect theology found in other parts of the bible rather than the original language. Judas chose the path to ruin when he determined to betray Jesus. Strong G3588. Looking at the Vines entry, this definitely means "son". , Some theologians and scholars also consider "the beast that goes into perdition" mentioned in Revelation 17:8 and 17:11 to be references to the son of perdition.". What is the translation methodology for the Nueva Versión Internacional (NVI)? from your pastor, priest, or other trustworthy counselor, MAINTENANCE WARNING: Possible downtime early morning Dec 2/4/9 UTC (8:30PM…, “Question closed” notifications experiment results and graduation. [Strong's 622] The Hebrew name is "Abaddon" (Greek: Aβαδδων), from the Aramaic root word "'abad", which means the same thing as the Greek root word. Jesus was protecting the twelve apostles, except for Judas. How do you reconcile this when the Bible says the Father cannot be seen? How to place 7 subfigures properly aligned. Clearly, there was plotting involved, a conscious effort to betray Jesus, and a choice that Judas made. 6 He consented, and watched for an opportunity to hand Jesus over to them when no crowd was present. Then Satan entered Judas, called Iscariot, one of the Twelve. The phrase simply means “man doomed to destruction” and is not reserved for any one individual. The choice of using the word "perdition" is acceptable in the old form of the word ("utter destruction"), however it has taken on the connotation of "eternal damnation" and so it's no longer an appropriate translation, in my opinion. "the one doomed to destruction" is wrong, and that we should stick with the literal "son of destruction", or do you think it is acceptable? How to consider rude(?) In sequence models, is it possible to have training batches with different timesteps each to reduce the required padding per input sequence? However this is not the case in all languages; for example the Luther Bible renders the use in John as "das verlorene Kind" (the lost child), but the use in 2 Thessalonians as "das Kind des Verderbens" (the child of corruption). In John 17, Jesus prays and says of his disciples. He refers to Judas as the "son of perdition" saying that he was the only one who he did not protect. site design / logo © 2020 Stack Exchange Inc; user contributions licensed under cc by-sa. reply from potential PhD advisor? et al. Christianity Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for committed Christians, experts in Christianity and those interested in learning more. Can I run my 40 Amp Range Stove partially on a 30 Amp generator, Limitations of Monte Carlo simulations in finance. Is the word ноябрь or its forms ever abbreviated in Russian language? Is there any evidence for the claim that the Catholic church suppressed translation of Scripture? Is there a name for applying estimation at a lower level of aggregation, and is it necessarily problematic? Judas Iscariot, who, after betraying Jesus, committed suicide instead of repenting, and went to hell for everlasting destruction. 2 Thessalonians 2:3 "Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;" King James Version, 1611. The phrase there is a literal translation from the Greek, "ὁ υἱὸς τῆς ἀπωλείας"; "the son of X" is an idiom for "one who personifies the nature of X", and "ἀπωλείας" (Strong 684) can mean "perdition", "loss", "destruction", "ruin", and so on. While I was with them in the world, I kept them in thy name: those that thou gavest me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled. Related to that, is there any real doctrinal difference between the phrases above? To subscribe to this RSS feed, copy and paste this URL into your RSS reader. But what was he protecting them from? How do Bible scholars reconcile the differences between Greek and Aramaic in John 21:15-17? Some scholars and theologians down through history, including Hippolytus, Luther, Wesley, Manton, Schaff, et al, say that first "Son of Perdition" reference is to Antiochus IV Epiphanes, the man who attacked the Second Temple in Jerusalem and defiled it by sacrificing a pig on the altar, erecting a statue of Zeus as himself in the temple, raiding the Temple treasury and minting coins saying "Theos Epiphanes" (God manifest), etc. If we look at what Jesus is saying here, he's saying that he saved and protected all of his disciples except for Judas. The son of perdition (Greek: ο υιος της απωλειας, ho huios tēs apōleias) is a phrase associated with a demoniacal title that appears in the New Testament in the Gospel of Saint John 17:12 and in the Second Epistle to the Thessalonians 2:3. Jesus allowed Judas to be tempted--he withdrew his protection from Judas so that Satan could enter into his heart--and Judas chose to turn away from God and from Jesus. Given that, it looks like the closest translation into plain English is the one given by the Jerusalem Bible. What is a faithful translation for “the son of perdition” in John 17:12? "houis" What LEGO piece is this arc with ball joint?
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